Fallacy
Posted: Sun Mar 20, 2011 4:49 pm
i read something somewhere once about this:
if you are offered a 1/3 chance for example, three upturned cups one has a ball hidden under it
you guess one time, and you dont find the ball, you had a 33.335% chance of getting it
if you change your mind after the first chance -- do you then get a 50% chance instead of 33.33%
im stuck from this point...
the odds dont actually change, but as you are given a choice does it matter?
if you are offered a 1/3 chance for example, three upturned cups one has a ball hidden under it
you guess one time, and you dont find the ball, you had a 33.335% chance of getting it
if you change your mind after the first chance -- do you then get a 50% chance instead of 33.33%
im stuck from this point...
the odds dont actually change, but as you are given a choice does it matter?